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You know, the same kind of problem that a person who doesn't understand basic human sexuality (men have sex with women and vice versa by design) have.Provide evidence of design. Please be specific. Be sure to explain, also, how elderly and infertile couples, currently allowed marriage by unchallenged law, fulfill this design.
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I didn't see Michealangelo sculpt the Pieta. I haven't seen firsthand evidence that anyone, he or anyone else, did either. Yet I have a very difficult time seeing that masterful work as the result of the actions of water and wind on marble, for some reason.Probably because we know that rocks are not generally shaped that way, and the resemblance of inorganic forms to organic ones generally requires some level of alteration. Inference of design in nature has no such simple inductive pathway to follow. Indeed, inferring design in nature strikes me as backwards. All design is an attempt to replicate natural forms; thus, it is not nature that appears designed, but design that resembles nature, for obvious reasons. The "irreducible complexity" of natural form is, most likely (from a pantheist's view, in any case) the failure of order to replicate the genius of chaos.
But whether the design was that of a creator or the much less believable lightning bolt and primordial swamp notion isn't really the point. Human men are biologically suited to have sex with human women.If we limit our discussion of sex to procreative sex, sure. Minus that, individuals are highly suited to have sex with those to whom they are erotically drawn (and who are erotically drawn to them). The most suitable sexual partner to he or she who isn't seeking to breed (and even many who are) is going to be the one who gets you off, or the one whom you can get off.
And I note with interest that nobody has produced the multiple historical interests of homosexual marriage over many cultures and times. Anyone? At all? No? All right then, quit the bullshit about this just being another evolution of marriage, m'kay. Whether women were viewed as chattel or cherished helpmeets, men as owners or loved husbands, and whether marriage was a childless couple or polygamous mess, it has always, always, always been between a man and a woman. Period. And it always will be, whatever you reality challenged gomers pass into law or don't.I'll leave the research to people less busy writing plays and having sex with their spouses than I am, but I have to wonder--what difference does it make? The point is that the definition of marriage has changed. Polygamy has actually been the most historically prevalent form. Given that, how can you say it's always been a man and a woman, given situations in which it's been a man and several women, or a woman and several men? What about the same-sex marriages of the Arakmbut?
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